A certain seminary says:
Regulation Regarding Divorce
The Seminary does not admit as a student anyone who has ever been divorced or whose spouse has ever been divorced. This applies without exception both to those who are “innocent parties” of divorce and to others. Such a policy does not judge the manner of life of any divorced person. The regulation, however, is established as a witness to God’s original intention for the lifelong covenant of marriage. Matthew 5:32; 19:3-9; Mark 10:5-9; Luke 16:18; and Malachi 2:16 are the primary biblical passages that support this understanding
I hope you've already had the same thought:
How does the third sentence reconcile with the first?
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